Archive for the ‘First Amendment’ Category

Trump’s Trial and the First Amendment – Reason

My co-blogger Orin Kerr argues that the NY Falsifying Business Records law, Section 175.10 includes two elements: 1) falsifying business records; and 2) doing so "when the intent to defraud includes an intent to commit another crime or to aid or conceal the commission thereof." Orin hypothesizes that the part of the law mentioned in Part 2 of this test need not survive First Amendment scrutiny by itself. As a matter of statutory interpretation, Orin suggests that the second element of the Falsifying Business Records charge need only be an element of the Section 175.10 crime. And an element of the crime need not be constitutional itself.

This is not true. Donald Trump had a First Amendment right to spend money to win the 2016 presidential election by safeguarding his reputation, and Orin's construction of NY law would burden Trump's core political speech. NY cannot have a two element crime, both of which elements need to be proved, if one of the elements violates the First Amendment. Orin analogizes Trump's case to the case of someone who engages in battery during a political debate. Obviously, there is no right to engage in battery while engaging in First Amendment protected debate. But, there is a First Amendment right to spend money to protect your reputation and your family right before a presidential election by paying false accusers to stay silent. Doing so is not a crime.

Alvin Bragg says that the other crime that Trump falsified business records to conceal is that described by NY Election Law Section 17-152: "Any two or more persons who conspire to promote or prevent the election of any person to a public office by unlawful means *** shall be guilty of a misdemeanor." Paying hush money, like buying time for television and radio advertisements, is not an "unlawful means" of trying to win an election. The First Amendment completely protects what Trump is alleged to have done in 2016.

In fact, the person who has acted wrongly here is Alvin Bragg who for the first time in 235 years of American history has indicted a former president who is the Republican nominee for president in 2024 just to muddy him up. Bragg did this by splashing the irrelevant facts of the Stormy Daniels hush money allegation all over the front pages of the newspaper just as the 2024 presidential campaign gets kicked off. Republican nominee Trump cannot campaign during three vital weeks of the campaign season because Alvin Bragg has him locked up in a NY courtroom where the judge has subjected Trump to a gag order. Bragg and the judge trying Trump's NY State criminal case have committed constitutional torts for which they cannot be sued only because of our dumb prosecutorial and judicial immunity rules.

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Trump's Trial and the First Amendment - Reason

Are gag orders constitutional? SCOTUS says it depends – VERIFYThis.com

Court-imposed gag orders put limits on speech, so how are they legal under the First Amendment? We VERIFY what the Supreme Court has said on the issue.

Former President Trump has been fined $9,000 by a judge and declared to be in contempt of court in the New York criminal trial where hes accused of covering up hush money payments to a porn star.

The judge said Trump violated an order not to attack witnesses and other key participants in the trial when he repeatedly posted about them on Truth Social.

Such court-imposed orders are often called gag orders, and since they restrict what a person is allowed to say publicly, VERIFY reader Richard wondered how they can be legal given the First Amendments free speech protections.

Are gag orders constitutional?

The Supreme Court has found some gag orders are constitutional and others are not. The First Amendment right to free speech must be weighed with the Sixth Amendment right to a fair trial, on a case-by-case basis.

Gag orders arent common, but in certain cases theyre used to prevent potential witness tampering or attempting to unduly influence jurors through public media campaigns. Courts can assess whether gag orders are constitutional on a case-by-case basis.

The First Amendment to the U.S. Constitution guarantees the right to free speech, but the Sixth Amendment guarantees the right to a fair and speedy trial, and sometimes these two things can be at odds.

This is a classic confrontation of constitutional rights, said Ken Paulson, director of the Free Speech Center at Middle Tennessee State University.

The Supreme Court has ruled both that excessive public speech about a trial can result in it becoming unfair, making gag orders necessary, and that judges attempts to quash such speech can go too far and infringe on First Amendment rights.

There are several key cases that shape how the Supreme Court currently views the constitutionality of gag orders.

For example, in the 1950s a murder trial in Cleveland became a media circus. Personal information about witnesses and jurors was widely publicized, the judge told a reporter he thought the defendant was guilty, and jurors were allowed to make phone calls during deliberations.

The defendant was convicted, but in 1966 the U.S. Supreme Court overturned the conviction and found that the publicity resulted in an unfair trial.

The Supreme Court said then that it was within the rights of a judge in order to protect the Sixth Amendment rights of a defendant to tell those who are participating in the trial that they may not speak publicly, including to the press, about the case, said Paulson.

After that ruling, some judges began to clamp down on what could be publicly said during their trials, both by participants and the press. But that authority only goes so far.

In 1976, the Supreme Court struck down a gag order issued by a judge in Nebraska, in which he ordered local media not to report details of a murder trial. The justices ruled its almost always unconstitutional for a judge to tell the press what they can and cant publish, but they didnt restrict gag orders on trial participants.

[The Supreme Court] basically said: you can tell the people that the news media get their information from not to talk, but you can't tell the news media not to talk, said Paulson. Important principle. Survives to this day.

These two rulings helped establish the current parameters judges use when issuing gag orders: balancing free speech with ensuring a fair trial.

"With gag orders, it's actually a compromise. What it does is say: You're a member of this trial, you are either a defendant, you're a lawyer, you're an official. And in the interest of protecting the Sixth Amendment rights of this defendant, we're going to tell you to shut up for a while, said Paulson. On the other hand, what can I tell the press? You can write about anything you want to. You can write freely about the events in the courtroom, you can analyze the case, you can report whatever you'd like. So on one hand, the Sixth Amendment is protected, and on the other the First Amendment is protected. It's actually a pretty good balance.

In Trumps New York case, the judge has argued a gag order is necessary to prevent Trump from potentially intimidating witnesses and jurors.

Judges, generally speaking, have discretion to decide how to weigh the First and Sixth Amendment factors in these cases, but gag orders can be appealed to higher courts.

Trump appealed the New York gag order, but the appellate court rejected his claims. His lawyers have not said whether they will try to appeal again to a higher court.

It's rare for any decision along those lines to be overturned by an appellate court, and it would be extraordinarily rare [for] someone to be able to get the Supreme Court to hear it, said Paulson. So bottom line is: establishing a reasonable limit on the participants is almost always going to be upheld.

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Are gag orders constitutional? SCOTUS says it depends - VERIFYThis.com

"Antisemitism Awareness Act of 2023" (Which Just Passed the House) Could Suppress First-Amendment-Protected … – Reason

HR6090, which passed the House of Representatives Wednesday by a 320-91 vote, would provide, in relevant part,

For purposes of this Act, the term "definition of antisemitism"

(1) means the definition of antisemitism adopted on May 26, 2016, by the IHRA [International Holocaust Remembrance Alliance], of which the United States is a member, which definition has been adopted by the Department of State; and

(2) includes the "[c]ontemporary examples of antisemitism" identified in the IHRA definition.

In reviewing, investigating, or deciding whether there has been a violation of title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 on the basis of race, color, or national origin, based on an individual's actual or perceived shared Jewish ancestry or Jewish ethnic characteristics, the Department of Education shall take into consideration the definition of antisemitism as part of the Department's assessment of whether the practice was motivated by antisemitic intent.

Nothing in this Act shall be construed

(1) to expand the authority of the Secretary of Education;

(2) to alter the standards pursuant to which the Department of Education makes a determination that harassing conduct amounts to actionable discrimination; or

(3) to diminish or infringe upon the rights protected under any other provision of law that is in effect as of the date of enactment of this Act.

(b)Constitutional Protections.Nothing in this Act shall be construed to diminish or infringe upon any right protected under the First Amendment to the Constitution of the United States.

The IHRA examples state that "Contemporary examples of antisemitism in public life, the media, schools, the workplace, and in the religious sphere could, taking into account the overall context, include, but are not limited to":

Calling for, aiding, or justifying the killing or harming of Jews in the name of a radical ideology or an extremist view of religion.

Making mendacious, dehumanizing, demonizing, or stereotypical allegations about Jews as such or the power of Jews as collectivesuch as, especially but not exclusively, the myth about a world Jewish conspiracy or of Jews controlling the media, economy, government or other societal institutions.

Accusing Jews as a people of being responsible for real or imagined wrongdoing committed by a single Jewish person or group, or even for acts committed by non-Jews.

Denying the fact, scope, mechanisms (e.g. gas chambers) or intentionality of the genocide of the Jewish people at the hands of National Socialist Germany and its supporters and accomplices during World War II (the Holocaust).

Accusing the Jews as a people, or Israel as a state, of inventing or exaggerating the Holocaust.

Accusing Jewish citizens of being more loyal to Israel, or to the alleged priorities of Jews worldwide, than to the interests of their own nations.

Denying the Jewish people their right to self-determination, e.g., by claiming that the existence of a State of Israel is a racist endeavor.

Applying double standards by requiring of it a behavior not expected or demanded of any other democratic nation.

Using the symbols and images associated with classic antisemitism (e.g., claims of Jews killing Jesus or blood libel) to characterize Israel or Israelis.

Drawing comparisons of contemporary Israeli policy to that of the Nazis.

Holding Jews collectively responsible for actions of the state of Israel.

This, I think, has the potential to unconstitutionally suppress speech. Let me explain why.

[1.] To begin with, imagine that a Kamala Harris Administration backs and gets enacted the following hypothetical statute:

In reviewing, investigating, or deciding whether there has been a violation of title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 on the basis of race, color, or national origin, based on an individual's actual or perceived shared Palestinian ancestry or Palestinian ethnic characteristics, the Department of Education shall take into consideration, as part of the Department's assessment of whether the practice was motivated by anti-Palestinian intent, that:

Contemporary examples of anti-Palestinian prejudice in public life, the media, schools, the workplace, and in the religious sphere could, taking into account the overall context, include, but are not limited to:

Denying the Palestinian people their right to self-determination, e.g., by claiming that any Palestinian state would lead to terrorist attacks on Israel.

Applying double standards by requiring of Palestinians a behavior not expected or demanded of any other group that is waging an insurrection against an oppressive government.

Drawing comparisons of contemporary Palestinian policy and attitudes towards Jews to those of the Nazis.

Holding Palestinians collectively responsible for actions of Palestinian de facto governmental organizations.

Justifying the killing or harming of Palestinians in the name of protecting another nation's security, or on the theory that it is acceptable collateral damage in the other nation's defensive operations.

Now discrimination against Palestinian-Americans is indeed, like discrimination against Jews, likely already prohibited by Title VI as discrimination based on race or national origin, just as discrimination against Hispanics or Arab-Americans is already prohibited. But I take it that we'd be concerned that the following exampleseven if cast just as examples of what might be useful as evidence of discriminatory intentare likely to (and probably intended to) deter people from expressing their political views about the Israeli-Palestinian conflict.

To be sure, one can draw distinctions between the examples I give above and the examples in the IHRA Anti-Semitism statement endorsed by HR6090. For instance, some people argue that it's illegitimate to deny to Jews a right to have a nation of Israel, because it already does exist, but legitimate to deny the Palestinians a right to have a nation of Palestine, because it has not been officially recognized. (I'm quite skeptical of the view that official international recognition should make a difference for which arguments are legitimate, and especially for which arguments are protected by the First Amendment.) Or some might say that, in their experience, the view that Jews don't have a right to national self-determination is highly correlated with anti-Semitism but the view that Palestinians lack such a right is not highly correlated with anti-Palestinian prejudice.

But do you think it's likely that courts will indeed reliably accept such distinctions? Or do you think instead that, if HR6090 were passed and a court were to uphold it, would that decision be a powerful precedent in favor of the constitutionality of the hypothetical statute signed by President Harris?

[2.] More specifically, one problem with HR6090 (as well as the hypothetical proposed statute related to speech about Palestinians) is that speech has in recent years often been labeled discrimination, on the theory that certain statements create a "hostile environment" and therefore violate antidiscrimination rules. Under this theory, a rule that "Drawing comparisons of contemporary Israeli policy to that of the Nazis" is evidence of a Title VI violation means that a university could be punished under Title VI for allowing speech drawing such comparisons. Likewise, drawing such comparisons would violate campus speech codes that ban "discrimination" and "harassment."

As David Bernstein has pointed out, the problem here partly stems from the view that public comments by students, professors, and others can violate antidiscrimination law if they create a "hostile educational environment" based on race, religion, sex, sexual orientation, gender identity, national origin, and the like. Many courts have struck down campus speech codes framed in such terms, but the government and various universities have continued to assert that such speech restrictions are constitutional.

But HR6090, it seems to me, would exacerbate the problem by sweeping in anti-Israel speech (and not just overtly anti-Jewish speech) as potentially punishable "discrimination." Both anti-Israel speech and anti-Jewish speech are protected by the First Amendment (unless they fall within one of the narrow exception to First Amendment protection, such as for true threats). But broadening the unconstitutional restrictions is surely not a step forward.

Nor do I think that the provision that, "Nothing in this Act shall be construed to diminish or infringe upon any right protected under the First Amendment to the Constitution of the United States," helps much. The problem is that government officials often tend not to recognize that various speech, especially speech that is viewed as bigoted or "discriminatory," is protected by the First Amendment. HR6090, notwithstanding this proviso, tends to reinforce this attitude.

[3.] But say that HR6090, in its implementation, were limited to what one might think of as purely evidentiary uses of speeche.g., if someone has been attacked, or had his property vandalized, or has been excluded from some university program, or given a low grade, and the question is whether the action was motivated by his being Jewish. Let's set aside the possibility that, as some have argued, the creation or tolerance of a "hostile environment" would itself be treated by some as actionable conduct, even if the environment stems just from speech that doesn't fit within any of the narrow First Amendment exceptions. Let's focus instead on the purely evidentiary uses I just mentioned.

Even for such evidentiary uses, I think the bill would be dangerous and unconstitutional, as my hypothetical Harris Administration bill helps illuminate. Say that you are a professor who rejected a student's application to a graduate program. The student claims that the rejection stemmed from his or his parents' having been born in Gaza. (Assume he's an American citizen, so the claim is of discrimination based on national origin, and not based on current citizenship, which would raise more complicated problems.)

You argue that, no, you rejected him because you thought his past scholarly work wasn't strong enough. He responds that,

I think such an argument would be quite wrong, and dangerous to academic freedom. If the argument were accepted, it would sharply chill advocacy of various views on the Israeli-Palestinian conflict, and the government has no business doing that. And of course the same is true of HR6090.

Now I acknowledge that speech can be used as evidence of motive; indeed, sometimes it's the only such evidence. (See this post for more, including a discussion of some key Supreme Court cases on the subject.) Even in the absence of HR6090, if a professor publicly says "All Jews are scum and I hate working with them" or "all Palestinians are scum and I hate working with them," that could be evidence that a particular action by a professor with respect to a student was deliberate discrimination based on ethnicity. The same would be true if a student is being accused of punching a classmate or vandalizing the classmate's property based on the classmate's being Jewish or Palestinian.

But when there is such concrete evidence of ethnic hostility, HR6090 is unnecessary. HR6090 would make a difference only in cases where statements overtly expressing ethnic hostility are weak or even absent, and the evidence stemming from one's views on the Israeli-Palestinian conflict would then be brought in.

The closest analog in the Supreme Court precedents (not a perfect analog, but I think a helpful one) is the presumption struck down in Virginia v. Black (2003). There, the law banned cross-burning with the intent to intimidate; and some such cross-burning (e.g., burning a cross in front of a black family's house with the intent to make them fear that physical violence would be next) may indeed be punishable, when it falls within the First Amendment exception for true threats of violence. But the law also added,

Any such burning of a cross [including in any public place] shall be prima facie evidence of an intent to intimidate .

The Court held that this "prima facie evidence" provision violated the First Amendment, for reasons stated by Justice Souter (joined by Justices Kennedy and Ginsburg), and agreed with by Justice O'Connor (joined by Chief Justice Rehnquist and Justices Stevens and Breyer):

As I see the likely significance of the evidence provision, its primary effect is to skew jury deliberations toward conviction in cases where the evidence of intent to intimidate is relatively weak and arguably consistent with a solely ideological reason for burning. To understand how the provision may work, recall that the symbolic act of burning a cross, without more, is consistent with both intent to intimidate and intent to make an ideological statement free of any aim to threaten. One can tell the intimidating instance from the wholly ideological one only by reference to some further circumstance. In the real world, of course, and in real-world prosecutions, there will always be further circumstances, and the factfinder will always learn something more than the isolated fact of cross burning. Sometimes those circumstances will show an intent to intimidate, but sometimes they will be at least equivocal, as in cases where a white supremacist group burns a cross at an initiation ceremony or political rally visible to the public.

In such a case, the prima facie evidence provision will have the practical effect of tilting the jury's thinking in favor of the prosecution. [T]he provision will encourage a factfinder to err on the side of a finding of intent to intimidate when the evidence of circumstances fails to point with any clarity either to the criminal intent or to the permissible one. The provision will thus tend to draw nonthreatening ideological expression within the ambit of the prohibition of intimidating expression.

To the extent the prima facie evidence provision skews prosecutions, then, it skews the statute toward suppressing ideas. The question here is [whether] the statute's terms show that suppression of ideas may be afoot. And if we look at the provision for this purpose, it has a very obvious significance as a mechanism for bringing within the statute's prohibition some expression that is doubtfully threatening though certainly distasteful.

I think the same reasoning applies here. If a university responding to a student complaint, or the Department of Education Office for Civil Rights determining whether a university's response was inadequate, sees the usual sorts of evidence that would normally prove discriminatory motivation (e.g., "I hate Jews"), it can certainly rely on that evidence.

But HR6090, by pointing to the IHRA definition and its list of specific political statements as potential evidence, "skew[s] [the decisionmaker's] deliberations toward [a finding of forbidden behavior] in cases where the evidence of [anti-Semitism] is relatively weak." It "tilt[s] the [decisionmaker's] thinking in favor of [a finding of guilt]" simply based on a professor's or student's expression of political views about Israel (or, in my hypothetical, about Palestinian organizations). If "[t]he question" is whether "[HR6090's] terms show that suppression of ideas may be afoot," those terms have "a very obvious significance as a mechanism for bringing within [Title VI's] prohibition some expression that is doubtfully [evidence of discrimination]."

[* * *]

On the merits of the Israeli-Palestinian controversies, I generally support Israel; and I don't always support arguments that various attempts to protect Israel or Israelis from discrimination violate the First Amendmentconsider, for instance, my amicus briefs (e.g., this one), filed on behalf of Prof. Michael Dorf, Prof. Andy Koppelman, and myself, arguing that various state anti-BDS statutes do not violate the First Amendment. (My position there is that actual refusal to deal with Israel and Israelis are not protected speech, even if they are politically motivated, just as refusal to deal with Muslims or Christians are not protected speech.)

But here it seems to me (as I've argued before as to similar proposals) that HR6090 really does risk suppressing not just discriminatory conduct but speechspeech that I generally disagree with, but speech that is fully constitutionally protected.

The bill cites President Trump's Executive Order on Combating Anti-Semitism, and is largely based on that; for a post about that Order, from which much of this post is drawn, see here. Likewise, for a post criticizing a 2018 Department of Education decision that took a similar view to HR6090 and the Executive Order, see here.

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"Antisemitism Awareness Act of 2023" (Which Just Passed the House) Could Suppress First-Amendment-Protected ... - Reason

Donald Trump Has a First Amendment Right to Pay Hush Money to Support his Electoral Ambitions – Reason

Every day breathless articles appear in theNew York Times,and through-out the liberal media, about Donald Trump's allegedly lawless payment of hush money to help out his 2016 presidential campaign. In fact, Donald Trump has a First Amendment right to spend money, as does the Trump Organization, to further his electoral ambitions. InBuckley v. Valeo, the Supreme Court wrongly upheld expenditure limits on how much non-candidates could spend on elections, but it rightly held that wealthy individuals like Donald Trump could spend as much as they wanted to spend of their own money on election campaigns. And, they can spend their money on hush money payments, television or radio advertisements, or in any other legal way that would further their own campaigns or electoral ambitions.

To the extent that Trump was spending his own money in the 2016 presidential campaign, he had a First Amendment right to do that underBuckley v. Valeo. To the extent he was spending Trump organization money, Trump also had a First Amendment right to do that too because the campaign expenditure limits ofBuckley v. Valeo are now, and have always been, unconstitutional. Buckley v. Valeo should be overruled insofar as it upheld as constitutional any limits on spending money by anyone or by any organization to influence the outcome of an election.

The accounting entries of the hush money payments as "legal expenses" simply reflects the fact that Trump did not believe the allegations against him were true, or that he was protecting his family, or that he considered the payoffs to extortionate porn actresses and others as being settlements that did not confirm his guilt but that helped his 2016 campaign, which they did. The allegedly inaccurate accounting entries are at most misdemeanor offenses. The government in the NY State District Attorney's prosecution does not accuse Trump of embezzling funds from his organization or of fraud, nor could it do so.

Donald Trump should appeal any verdict against him in the NY State criminal case to the U.S. Supreme Court. He should assert his First Amendment rights underBuckley v. Valeo and to the extent that Buckley would allow a judgment against Trump to stand, Trump should ask that the entire edifice of campaign expenditure limits set up inBuckley v. Valeo be overruled. Legal experts know thatBuckley v. Valeo was "a derelict on the waters of the law" even before the recent appointments to the Supreme Court, and inTrump v. New York the U.S. Supreme Court should declareBuckley v. Valeo to be dead on arrival.

All that Trump has to do to win this farcical criminal case against him is to assert his First Amendment rights in every level of New York State's court system asking at every step along the way thatBuckley v. Valeobe overruled insofar as it forbade the expenditures in question. Obviously, no-one can spend money to bribe election officials or engage in other illegal conduct. But, nothing Trump has done is remotely illegal. Trump had a First Amendment right to make the hush money payments that he allegedly made in 2016.

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Donald Trump Has a First Amendment Right to Pay Hush Money to Support his Electoral Ambitions - Reason

What the First Amendment Means for Campus Protests – The New York Times

Follow our live coverage of the college protests at U.C.L.A. and other universities.

Protesters on college campuses have often cited the First Amendment as shelter for their tactics, whether they were simply waving signs or taking more dramatic steps, like setting up encampments, occupying buildings or chanting slogans that critics say are antisemitic.

But many legal scholars, along with university lawyers and administrators, believe at least some of those free-speech assertions muddle, misstate, test or even flout the amendment, which is meant to guard against state suppression.

Whose interpretation and principles prevail, whether in the courts or among the administrators in charge of meting out discipline, will do much to determine whether protesters face punishments for campus turmoil.

Public universities, as arms of government, must yield to the First Amendment and how the courts interpret its decree that there shall be no law abridging the freedom of speech or the right of the people peaceably to assemble.

But private universities set their own standards around speech and protest.

To be sure, private universities tend to embrace free expression more than, say, private businesses. Those policies and approaches, though, are driven by principles like academic freedom and the marketplace of ideas, not constitutional law.

Columbia University, a hub through this round of campus protests and the scene of an enormous police response on Tuesday night, has not forbidden all speech. But its current policy includes a set of rules, such as permissible demonstration zones and preregistration of protests, that the university says are intended to ensure safety while promising that all members of the university community have the right to speak, study, research, teach and express their own views.

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What the First Amendment Means for Campus Protests - The New York Times